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CIFC - Canadian Investment Funds Course Exam Practice Tests 2024 | ActualPDF
NEW QUESTION # 35
Thomas, a resident of Ontario, is a full-time university student. He does food delivery to supplement his income. During the school year, he works on weekends and works full-time during his summer break.
Thomas' pensionable earnings were $16,000 for the year. How much must Thomas contribute to CPP when CPP contribution rate is 5.95%?
- A. $912.00
- B. $0
- C. $1,425.00
- D. $743.75
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Thomas must contribute to CPP based on his pensionable earnings, which are his income from employment or self-employment that are subject to CPP. However, he can deduct a basic exemption amount from his pensionable earnings, which is $3,500 for the year. Therefore, his contributory earnings are:
16,0003,500=12,500
The CPP contribution rate is 5.95% for employees and self-employed workers. Therefore, Thomas must contribute:
12,500×5.95%=743.75
References:
Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Registered Plans, Section 6.3:
Canada Pension Plan (CPP), page 6-101
Canada Pension Plan - How much could you receive - Canada.ca2
NEW QUESTION # 36
Ai Fen has recently become registered to sell mutual funds with Acadian Eastern Financial, a mutual fund dealer. Ai Fen determined that with her background of being a Chartered Financial Analyst, she can help people understand the nature of investing more easily than others in her field.
Which registration category will need to be prominently noted on Ai Fen's business card to comply with the
"holding out rule"?
- A. Investment Representative
- B. Dealing Representative
- C. Registered Representative
- D. Chartered Financial Analyst
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The holding out rule is a regulatory requirement that prohibits registered individuals from using any title or designation other than their registration category when dealing with clients or potential clients. The purpose of this rule is to prevent misleading or confusing representations about the qualifications, roles, and responsibilities of registered individuals. According to Section 4.4 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), individuals who are registered to sell mutual funds must use the title "dealing representative" when holding out to clients or potential clients.
Therefore, Ai Fen must prominently note "dealing representative" on her business card to comply with the holding out rule. The other options are not valid registration categories for selling mutual funds. Option B is a generic term that does not specify the type of securities that can be sold. Option C is a registration category for individuals who trade securities on behalf of an investment dealer. Option D is a professional designation that does not indicate registration status. References: [Holding Out Rule], [Registration Categories], [Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations]
NEW QUESTION # 37
What information does Fund Facts provide to potential investors?
- A. The portfolio management strategy that is used.
- B. How to calculate the taxes owed from investment income.
- C. What the mutual fund is currently investing in.
- D. The remuneration paid to the Independent Review Committee.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 38
Kendrick is a newly registered Dealing Representative for Oak Solid Financial. He has been assigned the task of contacting existing clients where there has been no record of consultation within the last 12 months. The first person he sees on his list is a client named Chandra Ruffino. He double-checks if her phone number is on the Do Not Call List (DNCL) registry. Which of the following statements apply?
- A. If Chandra had closed her account within the last 12 months and registered herself on the DNCL, then Kendrick cannot call her.
- B. If Chandra is on the DNCL registry, Kendrick is still eligible to contact the client of Oak Solid Financial.
- C. If Chandra has been on the DNCL registry for 18 months, then Kendrick is not allowed to contact her.
- D. If Chandra is on the DNCL, then Kendrick can only contact her if she is specifically his client.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The Do Not Call List (DNCL) is a national registry of personal telephone numbers that consumers can register to reduce the number of unsolicited telemarketing calls they receive. Telemarketers are required to subscribe to the DNCL and avoid calling the numbers on the list, unless they have an exemption. One of the exemptions is for existing business relationships, which means that a telemarketer can call a consumer who has purchased a product or service from them or their employer within the last 18 months, or who has made an inquiry or application within the last six months. Therefore, Kendrick is still eligible to contact Chandra, who is an existing client of Oak Solid Financial, even if she is on the DNCL registry. However, Kendrick must respect Chandra's right to request that he stop calling her and remove her number from his contact list.
References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1, National Do Not Call List - Canada.ca2
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which among the following BEST describes a company's income statement?
- A. It shows the amount of profit that is reinvested in the company in the form of retained earnings.
- B. It provides a snapshot of a company's financial position at a specific point in time
- C. It shows the earnings and expenses of a business over a period of time.
- D. It shows the amount of capital contributed to the company by its shareholders or owners.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 40
Taylor is chatting with other parents in the park when the conversation turns to registered education savings plans (RESPs). Taylor thinks that most of what they are saying is incorrect. Which of the following statements about self-directed RESPs is TRUE?
- A. Only one beneficiary may be named per RESP.
- B. The government contributes an additional grant for low income families who qualify.
- C. Educational Assistance Payments (EAPs) may only be used for tuition for a post-secondary program.
- D. Educational Assistance Payments (EAPs) withdrawn from the plan are not taxable.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A self-directed RESP is a type of RESP where the subscriber (the person who opens the plan) has the freedom to choose and manage the investments within the plan, such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, etc. A self-directed RESP can have one or more beneficiaries (the children who will use the funds for their education) and can be individual or family plans. A self-directed RESP is eligible for the Canada Education Savings Grant (CESG), which is a 20% matching grant on the first $2,500 of annual contributions per beneficiary, up to a lifetime limit of $7,200. Additionally, low income families who qualify may receive an extra 10% or 20% on the first $500 of annual contributions per beneficiary, depending on their net family income. This is called the Additional CESG. Educational Assistance Payments (EAPs) are the payments made from the RESP to the beneficiary when they enroll in a qualifying post-secondary program. EAPs consist of the CESG, the Additional CESG, and any income or growth earned within the plan. EAPs may be used for any education-related expenses, such as tuition, books, transportation, accommodation, etc. EAPs are taxable in the hands of the beneficiary, who usually has a lower tax rate than the subscriber.
References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans1
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which statement about unused registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) contribution room is CORRECT?
- A. It may not be carried forward.
- B. It can be carried forward a maximum of seven years.
- C. It may not be more than the RRSP contribution limit for the year in which it is carried forward.
- D. It can be carried forward to future years.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 42
Sachin owns units of a long-term bond fund. He has heard that the Bank of Canada is likely to make it more expensive to borrow money. He is worried that the value of his investment is going to drop. What sort of investing risk is Sachin experiencing?
- A. market risk
- B. liquidity risk
- C. interest rate risk
- D. inflation risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Sachin is experiencing interest rate risk, which is the risk that changes in interest rates will affect the value of fixed income securities. When interest rates rise, bond prices fall, and vice versa. This is because investors will demand a higher yield to invest in bonds that pay a lower coupon rate than the prevailing market rate.
Therefore, if the Bank of Canada makes it more expensive to borrow money, the existing bonds in Sachin's fund will become less attractive and their prices will drop. Interest rate risk is measured by a fixed income security's duration, with longer-term bonds having a greater price sensitivity to rate changes. Sachin can reduce his interest rate risk by diversifying his bond maturities or hedging using interest rate derivatives1.
References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return2
NEW QUESTION # 43
With respect to the tax treatment of dividends received from a taxable Canadian corporation, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- A. Only 50% of dividend income is subject to tax.
- B. Dividends from both preferred and common shares of Canadian corporations receive preferential tax treatment.
- C. Dividends from non-resident corporations receive preferential tax treatment.
- D. Dividends are taxed the same way interest income is taxed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Dividends from both preferred and common shares of Canadian corporations receive preferential tax treatment because they are eligible for the dividend tax credit. This credit reduces the amount of tax payable on dividend income by accounting for the tax that the corporation has already paid on its earnings. Dividends from non-resident corporations do not qualify for this credit and are taxed at the same rate as interest income. Only
50% of capital gains, not dividend income, are subject to tax. References: The Dividend Tax Rate in Canada:
What You Need to Know Now - Hardbacon, How are Dividends Taxed in Canada? Exploring the Canadian Dividend Tax Credit
NEW QUESTION # 44
As a measurement of risk, which of the following statements about beta is TRUE?
- A. It is a ratio that compares a company's current rate of return to its average rate of return overtime.
- B. It is a relative measure that compares how an investment reacts to movements in a specific index.
- C. It corresponds to a stock's riskiness in relation to the frequency of dividend payments over a certain period of time.
- D. A larger beta for a stock means it will outperform the market at any point in the business cycle.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Beta is a relative measure that compares how an investment reacts to movements in a specific index. A beta of
1 means that the investment moves in sync with the index. A beta greater than 1 means that the investment is more volatile than the index. A beta less than 1 means that the investment is less volatile than the index.
References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute
NEW QUESTION # 45
Exchange traded funds (ETFs) that track an index and index mutual funds have many similarities. However, what is a major difference between these two products?
- A. ETFs do not have management fees since they are exchange traded while index funds do incur such fees.
- B. ETFs can be purchased continuously throughout the trading day while index funds can only be bought or sold at the end of the day.
- C. The market price of ETFs always matches the underlying basket of securities while there can be a discrepancy in pricing index funds.
- D. While ETFs are prone to tracking errors, index funds are perfectly aligned with their underlying index.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
ETFs can be purchased continuously throughout the trading day while index funds can only be bought or sold at the end of the day. This is because ETFs are traded on a stock exchange like stocks, while index funds are traded directly with the fund company like mutual funds. This difference gives ETFs more liquidity and flexibility than index funds, as investors can buy and sell ETFs at any time during market hours at the prevailing market price. Index funds, on the other hand, are priced only once a day at the end of the day based on the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) of the fund. Both ETFs and index funds are prone to tracking errors (A), which are the differences between the performance of the fund and the performance of the underlying index. Tracking errors can be caused by various factors, such as fees, expenses, dividends, rebalancing, and market conditions. The market price of ETFs does not always match the underlying basket of securities , as it is determined by supply and demand in the market. There can be a discrepancy between the market price and the NAVPU of an ETF, which is called the premium or discount. Index funds, on the other hand, are priced based on the NAVPU of the fund, which reflects the value of the underlying securities. Both ETFs and index funds have management fees (D), as they are both types of mutual funds that incur costs for managing and operating the fund. However, ETFs usually have lower management fees than index funds, as they are more passive and have lower turnover and distribution costs. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute
NEW QUESTION # 46
Your client, Rinaldo, wants to know more about the fees associated with his mutual funds. What can you tell him about a mutual fund's management expense ratio (MER)?
- A. Trailer and brokerage fees are charged separately from the MER.
- B. Mutual funds are required to calculate the MER on a daily basis.
- C. The MER reflects the percentage of each dollar of fund assets that is used to pay for management services.
- D. Mutual fund performance is not impacted by the MER since rates of return are published net of fees.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 47
Preston has been working for Thompson Industries for just over a year and has been part of Thompson's deferred profit sharing plan (DPSP) program from his start date. Preston wants to know more about these types of plans.
What would you tell Preston about DPSPs?
- A. The employer is obliged to make DPSP contributions for an amount equal to employee contributions.
- B. Once the plan is set up, the employer is obliged to make plan contributions each year.
- C. DPSP contributions are tax-deductible to the employer.
- D. Investment growth within the plan is taxable each year.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A DPSP is a type of registered plan that allows employers to share their profits with their employees.
Employees do not contribute to a DPSP, and they do not pay taxes on the contributions until they withdraw them. Employers can deduct their contributions to a DPSP from their taxable income, subject to certain limits and conditions.
References = IFSE CIFC Module 6: Registered Plans, page 6-12. Contributing to a deferred profit sharing plan
- Canada.ca
NEW QUESTION # 48
Catarina is a Dealing Representative for Ethical Financial which represents 20 different mutual fund families.
Darlene is a fund manager from one of those mutual fund families and wants to send a gift card to Catarina as a symbol of appreciation. Ethical Financial's policies and procedures manual (PPM) require that Catarina decline the gift.
What method of addressing conflict of interest is being used by Ethical Financial?
- A. Control
- B. Potential
- C. Avoidance
- D. Disclosure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Avoidance is a method of addressing conflict of interest by preventing it from occurring in the first place.
Ethical Financial's policies and procedures manual (PPM) require that Catarina decline the gift from Darlene, which is a potential source of conflict of interest. By doing so, Catarina avoids any appearance of favouritism or bias towards Darlene's mutual fund family. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3) References:
Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest IFSE Institute: Conflicts of Interest1
NEW QUESTION # 49
On January 3, John invests $500 in the Blue Sky U.S. Equity Fund. On July 1 of the same year, he invests another $500 into the same mutual fund. Information about the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) at the time of each transaction is provided below. Given this information, what will be the value of John's investment on December 31 of this year (please ignore transaction costs and distributions)?
- A. $1,256
- B. $1,198
- C. $1,332
- D. $1,216
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The value of John's investment on December 31 of this year can be calculated by multiplying the number of units he holds by the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) on that date. Since John invested $500 on January 3 and $500 on July 1, he holds a total of 125.6 units (62.8 units from the first investment and 62.8 units from the second investment). Therefore, the value of his investment on December 31 will be 125.6 units x $9.55 NAVPU = $1,256.
References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2: Mutual Funds1
NEW QUESTION # 50
Jabir begins the registration process with his new dealer Prosper Wealth Inc. Jabir is excited about his new career and eager to start calling clients, opening new accounts, and selling investments. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes when Jabir will be eligible to open new client accounts and sell investments?
- A. Upon registration application by the dealer
- B. Upon formal confirmation from the regulator
- C. Upon employment with the dealer
- D. Upon passing the proficiency course
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 51
At 4:00 p.m. Eastern Time on July 6, the following information is collected for the Marigold Canadian Dividend Fund:
What is the net asset value per unit NAVPU for the Marigold Canadian Dividend Fund for July 6?
- A. $7.65
- B. $9.27
- C. $7.19
- D. $8.25
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) for the Marigold Canadian Dividend Fund for July 6. The NAVPU is calculated by dividing the net asset value (NAV) of the fund by the number of units outstanding. In this case, the NAVPU is $8.25 ($45,668,900 / 5,564,443).
The NAV is the value of a fund's assets minus the value of its liabilities. The value of assets is the value of all the securities in the portfolio, plus any cash and cash equivalents, plus any accrued income for the day. The value of liabilities is the value of all short-term and long-term liabilities, plus any accrued expenses for the day. The NAV is usually expressed on a per-share or per-unit basis, which is the NAVPU.
The NAVPU is the price at which investors can buy or sell units of the fund. It is determined at the end of each trading day based on the closing market prices of the portfolio's securities. The NAVPU can change daily depending on the performance of the securities in the fund and the fund's expenses.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the followings describes segregated funds?
- A. Segregated funds offer some protection of the capital invested but there is an added cost for the protection.
- B. Segregated funds have high returns, high management fees, and cannot be redeemed until the maturity date of the contract.
- C. Segregated funds are subject to securities regulation because they are distributed by mutual fund dealing representatives.
- D. Segregated funds flow through capital losses to investors because the investors are the owners of the underlying fund.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Segregated funds offer some protection of the capital invested but there is an added cost for the protection.
Segregated funds are contracts issued by life insurance companies that invest in underlying funds, similar to mutual funds. Segregated funds have a maturity guarantee and a death benefit guarantee, which ensure that the investor or their beneficiary will receive a certain percentage of their initial investment, regardless of market fluctuations. However, these guarantees come at a cost, which is reflected in higher management fees and insurance fees than mutual funds. Segregated funds do not have high returns, as they depend on the performance of the underlying funds. Segregated funds can be redeemed before the maturity date of the contract, but they may be subject to early redemption fees or market value adjustments. Segregated funds do not flow through capital losses to investors, as they are not considered owners of the underlying fund.
Segregated funds are subject to insurance regulation, not securities regulation, because they are distributed by life insurance agents. References: Segregated Funds
NEW QUESTION # 53
Frederic recently sold his units in a US dollar (USD) denominated mutual fund. He wants to convert the proceeds back to Canadian dollars (CAD). If he received proceeds of $1,200 USD from the sale and the exchange rate is $1 CAD for $0.99 USD, how much will Frederic receive in Canadian dollars?
- A. $1,200.00
- B. $1-188.00
- C. $1,320.00
- D. $1, 12.12
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
To convert the proceeds from USD to CAD, Frederic needs to divide the amount in USD by the exchange rate.
The exchange rate is $1 CAD for $0.99 USD, which means that $0.99 USD is equivalent to $1 CAD.
Therefore, Frederic will receive
CAD in Canadian dollars. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute, Unit 8, Lesson 2
NEW QUESTION # 54
What do Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS) and Allowance for the Survivor have in common?
- A. ability to defer benefits
- B. benefits start at the age of 65
- C. eligibility depends on income level
- D. benefit amounts depend on individual contribution
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS) and Allowance for the Survivor are both income-tested benefits that are part of the Old Age Security (OAS) program. They are designed to provide financial assistance to low-income seniors who meet certain eligibility criteria. GIS is a monthly payment that supplements the OAS pension for seniors whose income is below a certain threshold. Allowance for the Survivor is a monthly payment for low-income seniors aged 60 to 64 whose spouse or common-law partner has died and who have not remarried or entered into another common-law relationship. The benefit amounts for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depend on the income level of the recipient and are adjusted quarterly based on the Consumer Price Index. The higher the income, the lower the benefit amount, until it reaches zero at a certain income limit.
Therefore, eligibility for both GIS and Allowance for the Survivor depends on income level.
References: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans1
NEW QUESTION # 55
Every February, Reginald, a Dealing Representative, feels pressured by his Manager to generate new registered retirement savings plans (RRSP) and contributions to assist the branch in meeting broader business targets. Reginald is nearing the end of February, and he has a meeting with a new client, Orel. Orel wants to open a tax-free savings account (TFSA) to develop emergency savings because he does not want to worry about his withdrawals being taxed. Reginald suggests that if Orel were to contribute to an RRSP first, then the resulting tax savings could be used to fund a new emergency account.
In relation to account suitability, what can be said about Reginald's advice?
- A. Based on Orel's stated need, recommending an RRSP contribution is unsuitable.
- B. Recommending an investment solution that addresses two needs is putting Reginald's client's interest first
- C. Reginald is putting the client's interest first by informing Orel why he should change his purpose for investing.
- D. By convincing Orel to contribute an RRSP, instead of a TFSA, Reginald has put his client's interest first.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Based on Orel's stated need, recommending an RRSP contribution is unsuitable because RRSP withdrawals are taxed as income and may affect Orel's eligibility for government benefits. A TFSA is more suitable for Orel's goal of developing emergency savings because TFSA withdrawals are tax-free and do not affect income-tested benefits. References: Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) | Canadian Securities Institute
NEW QUESTION # 56
Winter is a Dealing Representative with Top Tier Investing, a mutual fund dealer and member of the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA). Which of the following statements about Winter's suitability obligation is CORRECT?
Winter is required to make a suitability determination every time:
i) she makes a recommendation to a client
ii) a client's investment returns decline.
iii) she opens a new client account
iv) the markets fluctuate.
- A. ii and iii
- B. i and ii
- C. iii and iv
- D. i and iii
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the MFDA Rules, a Dealing Representative is required to make a suitability determination every time:
* The Dealing Representative makes a recommendation to a client;
* The Dealing Representative accepts a trade instruction from a client;
* The Dealing Representative opens a new account for a client or changes the account type;
* The Dealing Representative becomes aware of a material change in the client's KYC information;
* Securities are transferred or re-registered into the client's account; or
* There has been a change in the Approved Person responsible for the client's account2 A suitability determination is the process of ensuring that any investment action taken for a client is suitable for the client based on their KYC information, such as investment objectives, risk tolerance, time horizon, financial situation, and investment knowledge. A suitability determination also requires putting the client's interests first and disclosing any material factors involved in the investment action2 Therefore, Winter is required to make a suitability determination every time she makes a recommendation to a client (i) or she opens a new client account (iii). She is not required to make a suitability determination every time a client's investment returns decline (ii) or the markets fluctuate (iv), unless these events trigger a material change in the client's KYC information or affect the suitability of the client's portfolio.
References: 1: MSN-0069 | MFDA 2 (Know-Your-Client (KYC) and Suitability)
NEW QUESTION # 57
Jonathan is a Dealing Representative who has just finished an appointment with his new client, Shirley.
Jonathan has concluded that Shirley has a low-risk profile but wants to establish additional savings of
$500,000. During their discussion, Shirley emphasizes she wants investments that are also tax efficient.
Jonathan learned that currently Shirley has no registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) and tax-free savings account (TFSA) contribution room due to using those opportunities by investmenting elsewhere.
What variable is a PRIMARY consideration for Jonathan when making an investment recommendation?
- A. Expected time horizon.
- B. Shirley's risk profile.
- C. Investment objective
- D. The tax consequences.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Shirley's risk profile is the primary consideration for Jonathan when making an investment recommendation.
Risk profile is a measure of how much risk an investor is willing and able to take on in their portfolio. It is determined by factors such as age, income, net worth, investment objectives, time horizon, and personal preferences. It is essential for a dealing representative to assess the risk profile of their client before recommending any investment products or strategies, as they have a fiduciary duty to act in the best interest of their client and ensure that their recommendations are suitable for their client's needs and goals. The other variables are also important, but they are secondary to the risk profile. References: [Risk Profile], [Know Your Client (KYC)]
NEW QUESTION # 58
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